"I know I'm going to sound like a cheerleader for "The Society," but how does the NWT in any way minimize the role of Jesus? I have copies of many translations and I fail to see how the NWT does what you are suggesting."
Here's a blatant example of Watchtower replacing "kyrios" with "Jehovah" even though the writer was not quoting from the OT. Worse yet, the replacement corrupts the true meaning of the text for the text is using "kyrios" to refer to Jesus. But Watchtower's Jehovarization of the text changes it to refer to Jehovah and makes it illogical. The text is Romans 14:8, which in the NWT, reads (NWT):
"None of us, in fact, lives with regard to himself only, and no one dies with regard to himself only; 8 for both if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. Therefore both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah. 9 For to this end Christ died and came to life again, that he might be Lord over both the dead and the living."
The use of Jehovah in Romans 14:8 is inconsistent with the context of Romans 14:9 which clearly identifies the "kyrios" of Romans 14:8 as being Christ. You see, Romans 14:9 gives the justification for why we belong to kyrios whether we live or die - because that kyrios became kyrios of dead and the living by dying a sacrificial death. Romans 14:8 is supposed to flow logically into Romans 14:9 where the kyrios is identified as being Christ. But in the NWT this definite logical flow is shattered by replacing kyrios with Jehovah thereby corrupting Romans 14:9 in the NWT to being an illogical non-sequitur.
Now notice how the text makes more logical sense in KJ21 when "kyrios" is consistently and accurately rendered as "Lord":
7 For none of us liveth to himself, and no man dieth to himself. 8 For whether we live, we live unto the Lord; and whether we die, we die unto the Lord. Whether we live therefore or die, we are the Lord’s. 9 For to this end Christ both died, and arose, and revived, that he might be Lord both of the dead and living."